GET PROFESSIONAL 100% CTPRP CORRECT ANSWERS AND PASS EXAM IN FIRST ATTEMPT

Get Professional 100% CTPRP Correct Answers and Pass Exam in First Attempt

Get Professional 100% CTPRP Correct Answers and Pass Exam in First Attempt

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Tags: 100% CTPRP Correct Answers, CTPRP Valid Exam Answers, New CTPRP Exam Vce, New CTPRP Study Materials, New CTPRP Test Vce Free

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CTPRP Valid Exam Answers & New CTPRP Exam Vce

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Shared Assessments Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Sample Questions (Q44-Q49):

NEW QUESTION # 44
Which factor is NOT typically used in multi-factor authentication?

  • A. Something the user remembers, like a password
  • B. The user's location
  • C. The user's knowledge of a secret question
  • D. Something the user wears, like a smartwatch

Answer: B

Explanation:
The user's location is not typically one of the factors used in multi-factor authentication, which classically involves something the user knows, has, or is. Location is more related to contextual or adaptive authentication mechanisms.


NEW QUESTION # 45
If a company identifies significant financial risk with a third-party vendor, what is an appropriate initial action?

  • A. Immediately cease all business activities with the vendor to prevent potential losses.
  • B. Negotiate lower prices to reflect the increased risk before continuing transactions.
  • C. Conduct a more detailed financial audit of the vendor to assess long-term viability.
  • D. Encourage the vendor to restructure their debt to improve financial stability.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Conducting a detailed financial audit helps in understanding the financial health and sustainability of a vendor, which is critical in assessing their long-term viability and reliability as a business partner. This action is a proactive approach to mitigating financial risks.


NEW QUESTION # 46
When selecting an external continuous monitoring solution, what is a crucial component for assessing the financial health of a vendor?

  • A. Reports that identify changes in vendor financial viability
  • B. Media coverage and public perception analysis
  • C. General news updates about the vendor's industry
  • D. Quarterly earnings forecasts published by financial analysts

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reports on changes in financial viability are essential for assessing whether a vendor can sustain its business operations, invest in necessary security measures, and meet its contractual obligations, which is crucial for maintaining a secure and reliable supply chain.


NEW QUESTION # 47
Information classification of personal information may trigger specific regulatory obligations. Which statement is the BEST response from a privacy perspective:

  • A. Public personal information includes only web or online identifiers
  • B. Personally identifiable financial information includes only consumer report information
  • C. Personally identifiable information and personal data are similar in context, but may have different legal definitions based upon jurisdiction
  • D. Personally Identifiable Information and Protected Healthcare Information require the exact same data protection safequards

Answer: C

Explanation:
Personal information is any information that can be used to identify an individual, either directly or indirectly, such as name, address, email, phone number, ID number, etc. Personal data is a term used in some jurisdictions, such as the European Union, to refer to personal information that is subject to data protection laws and regulations. However, the scope and definition of personal data may vary depending on the jurisdiction and the context. For example, the GDPR defines personal data as "any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person" and includes online identifiers, such as IP addresses, cookies, or device IDs, as well as special categories of data, such as biometric, genetic, health, or political data. On the other hand, the US does not have a single federal law that regulates personal data, but rather a patchwork of sector-specific and state-level laws that may have different definitions and requirements. For example, the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) defines personal information as "information that identifies, relates to, describes, is reasonably capable of being associated with, or could reasonably be linked, directly or indirectly, with a particular consumer or household" and excludes publicly available information from its scope. Therefore, from a privacy perspective, it is important to understand the different legal definitions and obligations that may apply to personal information or personal data depending on the jurisdiction and the context of the data processing activity. References:
* GDPR personal data - what information does this cover?
* Personal Information, Data Classification, Life Cycle and Best Practices
* 5 Types of Data Classification (With Examples)


NEW QUESTION # 48
Which approach demonstrates GREATER maturity of physical security compliance?

  • A. Providing a checklist for self-assessment
  • B. Maintaining a standardized scheduled for confirming controls to defined standards
  • C. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events
  • D. Conducting unannounced checks an an ac-hac basis

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, physical security compliance is the process of ensuring that the physical assets and personnel of an organization are protected from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or harm1. Physical security compliance can be achieved by implementing various measures, such as locks, alarms, cameras, guards, fences, badges, etc. However, these measures need to be regularly monitored, tested, and verified to ensure their effectiveness and alignment with the defined standards and policies2. Therefore, maintaining a standardized schedule for confirming controls to defined standards demonstrates a greater maturity of physical security compliance, as it indicates a proactive and consistent approach to assessing and improving the physical security posture of an organization3.
The other options do not reflect a high level of physical security compliance maturity, as they either rely on reactive or ad hoc methods, or lack sufficient verification and validation mechanisms. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events may indicate a lack of preventive and predictive measures, as well as a dependency on external or internal incidents to trigger the inspections.
Providing a checklist for self-assessment may indicate a lack of independent and objective evaluation, as well as a potential for bias or error in the self-assessment process. Conducting unannounced checks on an ad hoc basis may indicate a lack of planning and coordination, as well as a potential for disruption or inconsistency in the checks.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 24
* 2: Physical Security: Planning, Measures & Examples + PDF - Avigilon
* 3: Security Maturity Models: Levels, Assessment, and Benefits
* [4]: Best Practices for Planning and Managing Physical Security Resources - CISA, page 10
* [5]: Self-Assessment vs. Independent Assessment: What's the Difference? | Linford & Company LLP
* [6]: The Pros and Cons of Unannounced Audits | NQA


NEW QUESTION # 49
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